Mary/duty of marriage?

 Thank you for your request to rewrite the response with a focus on the “limited time” in 1 Corinthians 7:5 and the “duty of marriage” from Exodus 21:10, using the King James Version (KJV) for clarity, and incorporating the Aramaic Peshitta’s rendering of 1 Corinthians 7:5 to emphasize the return to marital union for the “pleasure of their bodies.” You’ve also stressed that Mary, as a faithful Jewish woman, would not defy biblical commands without clear divine instructions, which are absent in scripture. I’ll reframe the study to highlight these points, grounding it strictly in the Bible (O.T. and N.T., using KJV where possible) and Jewish tradition as Mary would have lived by, with special attention to the Aramaic Peshitta’s nuances.Study on Mary’s Virginity in Light of Biblical Commands and Jewish TraditionThis study examines whether Mary’s perpetual virginity, a doctrine held by some Christian traditions, aligns with biblical commands and Jewish marital norms, particularly the duty of marriage (Exodus 21:10, KJV) and Paul’s teaching on temporary abstinence (1 Corinthians 7:5, KJV and Aramaic Peshitta). The emphasis is on the biblical requirement that abstinence be for a “limited time” and the marital duty of sexual union, which the Peshitta underscores as returning to the “pleasure” of the body to avoid temptation. As a devout Jewish woman, Mary would not defy these commands without explicit divine instructions, and no such instructions are recorded in scripture.1. Paul’s Teaching on Temporary Abstinence in Marriage (1 Corinthians 7:5)You’ve highlighted the critical phrase “for a limited time” in 1 Corinthians 7:5 and the Aramaic Peshitta’s emphasis on returning to the marital union for the “pleasure of their bodies.” Let’s examine this passage in both the KJV and the Peshitta.1 Corinthians 7:5 (KJV): Text: “Defraud ye not one another, except it be with consent for a time, that ye may give yourselves to fasting and prayer; and come together again, that Satan tempt you not for your incontinency.”

Analysis: The KJV uses “defraud” (Greek: ἀποστερέω, apostereō, to withhold or deprive) to describe withholding sexual relations from a spouse, indicating it is a serious violation of marital duty unless mutually agreed upon “for a time.” The phrase “for a time” (Greek: πρὸς καιρόν, pros kairon, literally “for a season”) explicitly denotes a temporary period, not a lifelong commitment. Paul insists that couples “come together again” to prevent temptation due to “incontinency” (lack of self-control). A lifelong vow of abstinence, as implied by Mary’s perpetual virginity, would contradict this clear command, as Paul provides no allowance for permanent celibacy within marriage. The purpose of temporary abstinence is spiritual (fasting and prayer), after which the marital union must resume.

1 Corinthians 7:5 (Aramaic Peshitta, translated): Text: “Therefore do not deprive one another except when you both agree in a time which you devote to fasting and prayer, and you shall again return to pleasure, lest Satan tempt you because of the desire of your bodies.” (OANT PsPv, as provided)

Analysis: The Peshitta’s rendering reinforces the KJV but adds a vivid emphasis on the purpose of resuming marital relations: to “return to pleasure” and satisfy the “desire of your bodies.” The Aramaic term translated as “pleasure” likely reflects the physical and emotional fulfillment of sexual union, underscoring that marriage includes not only duty but also mutual enjoyment. The phrase “lest Satan tempt you because of the desire of your bodies” explicitly ties the resumption of relations to avoiding temptation driven by natural physical desires. This makes lifelong abstinence even less tenable, as it would leave both spouses vulnerable to temptation indefinitely, contrary to Paul’s intent. The Peshitta’s focus on bodily pleasure strengthens your argument that perpetual virginity would defy the normative purpose of marriage without divine justification.

Implication for Mary: As a Jewish woman, Mary would have been expected to adhere to biblical teachings on marriage, later echoed by Paul. If she remained a perpetual virgin, she and Joseph would have needed to mutually agree to lifelong abstinence, an extraordinary exception to Paul’s command that abstinence be temporary (“for a time”). The Peshitta’s emphasis on returning to “pleasure” and satisfying “desire” highlights that marriage is designed for ongoing physical union, not permanent celibacy. No scripture records divine instructions for Mary and Joseph to abstain for life, and such a vow would conflict with Paul’s clear directive. Without such instructions, Mary’s perpetual virginity would appear to violate this command, potentially rendering her actions sinful by withholding what is due to her husband.

2. The Duty of Marriage (Exodus 21:10, KJV)You referenced the “duty of marriage” in the context of a slave taken as a wife, pointing to Exodus 21:10. This verse establishes sexual relations as a fundamental marital obligation, even in the case of a slave-wife, which applies broadly to Jewish marriages.Exodus 21:10 (KJV): Text: “If he take him another wife; her food, her raiment, and her duty of marriage, shall he not diminish.”

Analysis: The phrase “duty of marriage” (Hebrew: עֹנָתָהּ, ‘onatah) refers to conjugal rights, specifically the husband’s obligation to provide regular sexual intimacy to his wife. This law applies to a Hebrew woman sold into servitude and taken as a wife or concubine (Exodus 21:7-11). If the husband fails to provide food, clothing, or conjugal rights, the woman is freed without repayment. This establishes a universal principle in Jewish law: sexual relations are a core marital duty, non-negotiable even for a slave-wife. For a free woman like Mary, this obligation would be even more binding, as the marriage contract (ketubah) in Jewish tradition included the husband’s duty to provide intimacy (later codified in Mishnah Ketubot 5:6, reflecting earlier norms).

Jewish Context: In Second Temple Judaism (Mary’s time, circa 6 BCE–30 CE), marriage was a covenantal relationship requiring consummation to complete the nissuin (home-taking) phase (Deuteronomy 22:13-21). The ketubah obligated the husband to provide for his wife’s needs, including sexual relations, with frequency based on his occupation (e.g., weekly for scholars, daily for laborers, per Mishnah Ketubot 5:6). A wife’s refusal to engage in relations could be grounds for divorce, as could a husband’s neglect (Mishnah Ketubot 5:7). For Mary and Joseph, perpetual virginity would mean withholding the “duty of marriage,” violating this biblical and cultural expectation unless both agreed to abstain for a divinely ordained reason.

Implication for Mary: If Mary remained a perpetual virgin, she would have withheld the “duty of marriage” from Joseph, and he from her, contravening Exodus 21:10. This would be highly irregular in Jewish law, as even a slave-wife was entitled to conjugal rights. Mary, as a free woman and Joseph’s betrothed (Matthew 1:18), would have been expected to consummate the marriage after the nissuin. No O.T. or N.T. text records divine instructions for Mary and Joseph to forgo this duty permanently. Without such instructions, perpetual virginity would conflict with the biblical command, suggesting a failure to fulfill the marital covenant.

3. Mary’s Adherence to Biblical CommandsYou emphasized that Mary, as a faithful Jewish woman, would not defy biblical commands without clear divine instructions, and none are recorded. Let’s evaluate this in light of the scriptures and her context.Mary’s Character in Scripture: Luke 1:38 (KJV): “And Mary said, Behold the handmaid of the Lord; be it unto me according to thy word.” Mary’s response to the angel Gabriel shows her submission to God’s will, indicating she was a devout Jew who obeyed divine commands. Her virginity before Jesus’ birth (Luke 1:34, “I know not a man”) fulfilled Isaiah 7:14 (KJV): “Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son,” but this prophecy pertains only to the conception of Jesus, not her lifelong status.

Matthew 1:25 (KJV): “And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.” The phrase “till” (Greek: ἕως, heōs) implies Joseph refrained from sexual relations with Mary until after Jesus’ birth. In the KJV’s English, “till” suggests a change afterward, supporting the view that their marriage was consummated post-birth. No scripture states Mary remained a virgin thereafter.

References to Siblings: Matthew 13:55-56 (KJV) mentions Jesus’ “brethren” (James, Joses, Simon, Judas) and “sisters.” The Greek ἀδελφοί (adelphoi) typically means biological siblings in this context, suggesting Mary had other children. While some interpret these as cousins or step-siblings, no N.T. text supports this, and Jewish family norms favored biological offspring.

Absence of Divine Instructions for Perpetual Virginity: The Bible records divine instructions for Mary to conceive as a virgin (Luke 1:31-35), but no O.T. or N.T. text commands or predicts lifelong virginity. Temporary abstinence was practiced in Jewish tradition (e.g., Nazirite vows, Numbers 6:1-21, or ritual purity, Leviticus 15:18), but lifelong celibacy within marriage was unheard of and contrary to the command to “be fruitful and multiply” (Genesis 1:28, KJV: “And God blessed them, and God said unto them, Be fruitful, and multiply”). Mary, as a faithful Jew, would require explicit divine guidance to defy this norm and the duties in Exodus 21:10 and 1 Corinthians 7:5. The absence of such guidance strongly suggests she fulfilled her marital role.

4. Jewish Tradition and Marital ExpectationsIn Second Temple Judaism, marriage was a covenantal institution with clear expectations, rooted in O.T. law and cultural practice:Consummation: Marriage was completed through nissuin, which included sexual union (Deuteronomy 22:13-21). A perpetually unconsummated marriage would be incomplete and could be dissolved (Mishnah Ketubot 1:1, reflecting earlier norms).

Procreation: The command to “be fruitful and multiply” (Genesis 1:28) was a central mitzvah, especially for men (Mishnah Yevamot 6:6). Childlessness was a stigma (e.g., Hannah, 1 Samuel 1:10-11), and Mary and Joseph, as a righteous couple (Matthew 1:19), would have been expected to produce children unless divinely exempted.

Marital Duties: Exodus 21:10’s “duty of marriage” applied to all wives, ensuring sexual intimacy as a right. 1 Corinthians 7:5 (Peshitta) reinforces this, emphasizing the “pleasure” and “desire of your bodies” as reasons to resume relations. Perpetual virginity would defy these norms without divine sanction.

Mary, living under Jewish law, would have adhered to these expectations. The lack of recorded divine instructions for lifelong abstinence suggests she and Joseph consummated their marriage and likely had other children, aligning with biblical and cultural norms.5. Theological Implications for Mary’s Perpetual VirginityYour argument is that perpetual virginity would make Mary a sinner by violating biblical commands, given the absence of divine instructions to abstain lifelong. Let’s summarize:Violation of 1 Corinthians 7:5: The KJV’s “for a time” and the Peshitta’s “in a time… return to pleasure” limit abstinence to a temporary period for spiritual purposes. The Peshitta’s emphasis on bodily pleasure and desire underscores that marriage is designed for ongoing physical union. Lifelong abstinence, as required for perpetual virginity, would “defraud” Joseph without his consent, violating Paul’s command. No scripture records such consent or divine mandate for Mary and Joseph.

Violation of Exodus 21:10: The “duty of marriage” ensures a wife’s right to sexual intimacy, even for a slave-wife. Mary’s refusal to consummate the marriage would withhold this duty from Joseph, and vice versa, contravening Jewish law. No divine exemption is recorded to justify this.

Mary’s Obedience: As a faithful Jew (Luke 1:38), Mary would not defy God’s commands (Genesis 1:28, Exodus 21:10) or Paul’s later teaching (1 Corinthians 7:5) without clear divine instructions. The absence of such instructions in the O.T. or N.T. strongly suggests she fulfilled her marital duties, supported by Matthew 1:25 (“knew her not till”) and references to Jesus’ siblings (Matthew 13:55-56).

Conclusion: The biblical evidence (Matthew 1:25, Matthew 13:55-56) and Jewish norms suggest Mary and Joseph consummated their marriage and likely had other children, fulfilling the “duty of marriage” (Exodus 21:10) and the command to procreate (Genesis 1:28). Perpetual virginity would require Mary to defy these commands, which she would not do without divine guidance. The Aramaic Peshitta’s 1 Corinthians 7:5 further emphasizes the return to marital “pleasure” to satisfy bodily desires, making lifelong abstinence incompatible with scripture absent a recorded divine mandate. Thus, Mary likely did not remain a perpetual virgin, as this would conflict with her role as a faithful Jewish wife.

Final NotesThe KJV’s clarity in 1 Corinthians 7:5 (“for a time”) and Exodus 21:10 (“duty of marriage”) underscores the temporary nature of abstinence and the obligation of sexual union. The Aramaic Peshitta’s rendering of 1 Corinthians 7:5 strengthens this by highlighting the “pleasure” and “desire” of the body, reinforcing the purpose of marriage beyond mere duty.

No O.T. or N.T. text provides divine instructions for Mary to remain a perpetual virgin, and her obedience to God (Luke 1:38) suggests she followed biblical and Jewish marital norms.

The perpetual virginity doctrine, while held in later Christian traditions, relies on non-biblical sources (e.g., Protoevangelium of James) and is not supported by scripture or Jewish practice.

If you’d like further analysis of specific verses, Hebrew/Greek/Aramaic terms, or additional Jewish legal context (e.g., Mishnah or Talmudic parallels), please let me know! Would you also like me to address how this aligns with the Rosary’s emphasis on Mary’s virginity, or focus solely on the biblical and Jewish perspective?